The Adam Inheritance - The Myths of Armageddon 
The End-Time debacle -The Plague of Religion.

This beautiful valley of Jezreel/Megiddo will never see an end-time battle

His Promises - How valid?

Last site edit: September 21 2017

In defence of the sidelined God Jehovah, Creator of the Universe and Father of Humanity

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Contact: dieterhoffmann@iprimus.com.au

Christianity's Enigma: How is Jesus both an Atonement and a Passover?

While a search on the Internet will garner a multitude of serious comments and fickle theories, the mystery just doesn't want to go away.

The answer is ever so elementary, I feel kind of stupid for even asking it.


But first, even more elementary:

With whom was the Passover associated?  Israel!
Exodus 4:22 a good verse to hone in for an evidentiary focus, or ask any Jew (
Christian?).

With whom was the Atonement associated?  Israel!  
Exodus 29 a good chapter to look for the evidence, or ask any knowledgeable Jew.


It it may be prudent for me to first define Atonement in a Biblical Israel context via this link.


Because Israel was on death row since their Babylonian debacle and Jehovah's removal of the Ark of the Covenant, they needed one final Atonement for the promises of God to remain valid.   

So what did our great God and Creator Jehovah do?

Provided a sheep we have come to know as Jesus son of God in the person of another Adam not descended from the original first Adam, primarily because God had never demanded a human sacrifice descended from Adam #1, nor ever shall.

John, of Baptist fame, introduced Jesus as the lamb of God in Chapter 1 verse 29 as follows:
The next day he beheld Jesus coming toward him, and he said: “See, the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world!

Ah yeah, but everyone read themselves into that world of which there are three in the King James and most other versions translated thus from three entirely different original Greek words -
please see here.  

Jesus taking away their sins was Israel's final redemptive atonement, which closed the entire book or epoch of Israel under the law covenant that began with their original exodus from Egypt and ended in Jesus.

Israel was in fact acquitted* i.e. found not guilty of sin, not freed from sins committed, because all of Israel were not sinners against a law given solely to define sins for only those for whom the law was designed:

1 Timothy 1:8-10  But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully,
9 knowing this: that the law is
not made for a righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,
10 for fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars, for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine,
  NKJV

* Romans 6:7

What does that say about humanity having inherited sin from Adam as alleged by that unrighteous apostate adulterous aberration of the original virginal bride of Christ:
Christianity?

Why then the Law to Israel?

In Galatians 3:19 the Apostle Paul explains why and for whom the Law was given:
19 What purpose then does the law serve? It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was appointed through angels by the hand of a mediator.   NKJV

because of transgressions’ ?   Yes, because many of the flock of Jacob were continually hurting others and themselves, as when Simeon and Levi went and killed every male in Shechem while these were in pain after an organised circumcision* long before Jehovah gave a judicial system to the people Israel, God had to provide some guidelines for acceptable behaviour.  

Without a law from God these two sons of Jacob could only have been found guilty by tribal custom but not by God, as Romans 4:15 in context testifies:

14 For if those who are of the law are heirs, faith is made void and the promise made of no effect,  15 because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression.  NKJV
* Genesis 34

The seed in Galatians 3:19 above, is NOT the second especially created human i.e. Adam #2* Jesus, who had worn the crown of his anointing as final king over Israel in the flesh on the throne of David, for just 3½ years.  That seed is and always shall be Israel* until their service assignment to assist humanity dead and alive to bless themselves* by means of cooperating with their Maker in the original task of Genesis 1:26-28, terminates at the threshold of God's 1000-year kingdom.
* Isaiah 41:8;  1 Corinthians 15:45;  Genesis 22:18 + see nwt footnote.


Having thus been executed according to the first covenant, Israel were now and remained dead seemingly forever and thus unable to continue with and fulfil all the promises of God to the fathers according to His purpose.

So, literally dead in their sins, only a miracle could save God's firstborn son Israel* to continue with the promises, while Jehovah's adulterous wife Israel were executed without compassion to remain dead forever along with her temporary earthbound 1st Covenant*.  
* Exodus 4:22
* NOT the Exodus 19:3-8 ‘kingdom’ covenant made with Jehovah's firstborn son.

That miracle proved to be Adam#2 Jesus, Atonement and Passover lamb John referred to above.

Already punished to sufficiency, still dead, though forgiven through the Atonement, Israel was reborn as, you guessed it, Israel  i.e. all who had accepted and put faith in Israel's second Passover: The Israel of God of Galatians 6:16 –– Please see the second Exodus page.

Nothing really changed in the Israel continuum except for a new covenant written in the hearts of those who came out of Old Covenant Israel and had accepted it in faith - Jeremiah 31:31-34 and with reference to Israel's eternal legacy in verses 35-37.

Jesus became sin for us where the us* are the people Israel Paul was a part of before Jesus became sin in their stead, taking all their sins against a law exclusively covenanted between Jehovah/Yahweh and the Israel of the Exodus upon himself, so that when he died, Israel died in him through execution as demanded by a law covenant only Israel had been given, in penalty for wantonly breaking it.
*
For greater detail on the identity of plural personal pronouns in the NT please go here.

The us further identifies Paul remaining in the now redeemed Israel of God along with all who demonstrate a faith like Abraham by accepting their salvation in the Messiah/Christ.


So yes, Jesus was both:

 1. Atonement sacrifice absolute and final* for the Israel of the Exodus . . . and

 2. Passover lamb Israel had to eat for a new birth into their promised everlasting destiny
from out of their legacy of sin and death.   John 6:48-59 -
like the manna, Jesus was of/from the earth

Please see also: the role of Sacrifices and Christ's Agony in the Garden.

* Click here for its exquisiteness


Rejoice, for the enigma is dead!